[Free] 2018(Mar) EnsurePass Testking CompTIA FC0-U41 Dumps with VCE and PDF 111-120
CompTIA Strata IT Fundamentals
Question No: 111 – (Topic 2)
Which of the following statements about CPU throttling are true ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
It is a process of cutting down the CPUprocessing time for an application, which is malfunctioning.
It is the process of running a computer component, such as CPU, at a higher clock rate than specified by the component manuurer.
It prevents applications using more than a certain percentage of CPU time in a certain time frame.
It is a method for minimizing performance bottlenecks and reducing network traffic by serving locally cached Web content.
Answer: A,C Explanation:
CPU throttling is a process of cutting down the CPU processing timefor an application, which is malfunctioning. For example, if a Terminal Server user opens an application that uses 100% of the
CPU time, the whole server becomes unresponsive, and other logged in users on the Terminal Server experience a slow performance,then CPU throttling is needed for freeing up CPU time and making the server performance better. In this situation, CPU throttling prevents applications using more than a certain percentage of CPU time in a certain time frame. It provides users a better Server Based Computing experience.
Answer option D is incorrect. Web caching is a method for minimizing performance bottlenecks and reducing network traffic by serving locally cached Web content. Web caching helps in reducing bandwidth utilization during periods of high network traffic. High
network traffic is usually caused when a large number of users use the network at the same time. With a caching solution in place, users#39; requests will be returned from the cache without having to travel over a WAN link tothe destination Web server.
Answer option B is incorrect. Overclocking is the process of running a computer component, such as CPU, at a higher clock rate than specified by the component manuurer. By increasing clock frequencies of the components, theperformance of computers can be improved at very little cost.
Users who overclock computer components generally try to enhance the performance of processors, video cards, RAM, and motherboard chipsets. The overclocked components produce excessive heat.
Therefore, an effective cooling system is required to avoid damage to the hardware. Users who practice overclocking often employ heavy-duty heatsinks and powerful fans.
Question No: 112 – (Topic 2)
Which of the following defines power management for various types of computers and peripherals?
Explanation: Answer option C is correct.
The Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) is a power-management specification developed by Intel, Microsoft, and Toshiba. It enables an operating system to control the amount of power supplied to each device attached to a computer by turning off peripheral devices when they are not in use. It defines power management on a wide range of mobile, desktop, and server computers and peripherals. It also enables manuurers to produce computers that automatically power up assoon as a user touches the keyboard.
Answer option B is incorrect. HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. It is a standard, uncompressed, and all-digital audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital videoand multi-channel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video sources, such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor. HDMI transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra bandwidth to accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors: Type A and Type B. Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B connector is designed for very highresolution displays that are expected in near future.
Answer option D is incorrect. Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a high- performance, 32-bit or 64-bit bus designed to be used with devices that have high bandwidth requirements, such as the display subsystem.
Answer option A is incorrect. PCI Express (PCIe), also known as 3rd Generation I/O (3GIO), is a type of computer bus. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than PCI and AGP slots. It uses two low-voltage differential pairs, at 2.5Gb/s in eachdirection. It is designed to replace PCI and AGP expansion slots. The bus is available in several different bus widths: x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, and x32. PCIe is able to transfer data in both directions at a time. PCIe hardware will work on operating systems that support PCI.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: quot;ACPIquot;
Question No: 113 – (Topic 2)
Which of the following protocols allows an e-mail client to access e-mails that are stored on a remote mail server?
Answer: B Explanation:
IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol. This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. Through this protocol, a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail
User Agent (MUA) for downloading an e-mail from the shared server. A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server.
Answer option C is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. E-mailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet.
SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP, port number 25. However, e-mail clients require POP orIMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers. Answer option A is incorrect. Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet
(PPPoE) is a specification for establishing PPP connections through Ethernet network adapters. It connects users on an Ethernet to the Internetthrough a common broadband medium, such as a single DSL line or cable modem. PPPoE is described in RFC 2516. Answer option D is incorrect.
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a maintenance protocol and is normally considered part of the IP layer.ICMP messages are encapsulated within IP datagrams, so that they can be routed throughout an internetwork.
Question No: 114 – (Topic 2)
How many pins are used in HDMI Type A and Type B connectors?
20 pins and 29 pins
18 pins and 28 pins
24 pins and 28 pins
19 pins and 29 pins
Answer: D Explanation:
HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. Itis a standard, uncompressed, and all-digital audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multichannel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video sources, such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor. HDMI transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra bandwidth to accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors: Type A and Type B. Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B connector is designed for very high-resolution displays that are expected in near future.
Question No: 115 – (Topic 2)
Which of the following processor states does not save power?
Answer: D Explanation:
The C0 processor state does not save power. It is an operational state.
Answer option B is incorrect. TheC1 state is a powered down state, but the processor takes action immediately on request. The C1 state uses less power than C0 state.
Answer option A is incorrect. The C2 state is also known as Stop-Clock. It uses less power than C1 state. In this state,the processor takes a little longer time than C1 state to come in action on the request of applications.
Answer option C is incorrect. The C3 state is also known as the sleep mode. In this state, the processor cache is flushed. In this state, the processortakes a few seconds to be available for action.
Question No: 116 – (Topic 2)
You have a customer who wants to move files and settings from an old PC to a new one she is buying. What tool do you recommend?
File and Settings TransferWizard
User State Migration Tool
Answer: A Explanation:
The files and settings wizard is made specifically for home users to transfer files and settings from an old PC to a new one.
Answer option D is incorrect. The User State Migration Tool is for IT administrators to handle large scale deployments.
FactWhat is User State Migration Tool (USMT)? Hide
User State Migration Tool (USMT) is used to migrate user files and settings during large deployments of Microsoft Windows XP and Microsoft Windows Vista operating systems. It captures desktop, and application settings, as well as user accounts and users#39; files, and then migrates them to a new Windows installation. It helps administrators to improve and simplify migration process. USMT can be used for both side-by-side and wipe-and-load migrations. USMT component SCANSTATE.EXE is used to collect the files and settings from the source computer and the LOADSTATE.EXE component is used to restore the user state onto the destination computer.
Answer option B is incorrect. Disk Management is used for partitioning disks, not
transferring files and settings. FactWhat is Disk Management? Hide
Disk Management is a folder in the Computer Management console used to view the volume status.
It displays the currently active volumes on the server. It also displays the active and inactive drives connected to the server. The following are the volume status displayed in the Disk Management folder:
Failed: This status occurs when a file systemgets damaged or corrupted. It may indicate data loss.
The volume can be returned to the healthy status by using the Reactivate Disk command. Failed Redundancy: Volumes with failed redundancy can be accessed, but their performance is slow.
Replacing or reactivating the missing disk can resolve this problem.
Healthy (At Risk): This status occurs when a dynamic volume experiences I/O error. The I/O error can be caused by bad sectors present on the actual disk. Reactivating or replacing the disk can resolve this problem.
Answer option C is incorrect. Windows Explorer can help you navigate files on a machine, but will not be as useful in transferring files and settings to a new PC.
Question No: 117 – (Topic 2)
Which of the following energy saving standards is used to control only monitors and video cards?
Answer: D Explanation:
The Display Power Management Signaling (DPMS) standard is used to control monitors and video cards. It must be enabled by an operating system such as Windows 9x/2000/Me through Control Panel.
Answer option B isincorrect. The APM standard can be used to control monitors, hard disks, and other peripherals.
Answer option A is incorrect. The ACPI standard can be used to control all APM peripherals and other computer devices.
Answer option C is incorrect. There is nosuch energy saving standard as ASPI.
Question No: 118 HOTSPOT – (Topic 2)
Identify the FireWire connector in the imagegiven below.
The IEEE1394 (FireWire) connector is used with the FireWire serial bus. FireWire can transmit data at a very high speed of 400Mbps and 800Mbps. Twotypes of connectors are available in this category, namely 4-pin and 6-pin.
Question No: 119 – (Topic 2)
Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Secure Digital (SD) card
Answer: C Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards. Withthe introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards.
Answer option B is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known asan AMR slot, is an expansion slot. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon personal computers. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such as sound cards and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins each, making a total of 46 pins.
Answer option A is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed by Intel. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning ofdevices such as modems and audio devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multi- channel audio, phone-line-based networking, and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise interference through the physical separation of noise- sensitive elements from the motherboard#39;s communication systems.
Answer option D is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards arebased on the older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm, but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devicesthat have SD card slots can use the thinner MMC cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are also available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity ports suchas USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.
Question No: 120 – (Topic 2)
Whichof the following refers to the process of verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process?
Answer: B Explanation:
Authentication is a process of verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process.
The authentication process compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the database of an authentication server.
Answer option C is incorrect. Hacking is a process by which a person acquires illegal access to a computer or network through a security break or by implanting a virus on the computer or network.
Answer option D is incorrect. Packet filtering is a method that allows or restricts the flow of specific types of packets to provide security.It analyzes the incoming and outgoing packets and lets them pass or stops them at a network interface based on the source and destination addresses, ports, or protocols. Packet filtering provides a way to define precisely which type of IP traffic is allowed to cross the firewall of an intranet. IP packet filtering is important when users from private intranets connect to public networks, such as the Internet.
Answer option A is incorrect. Auditing is used to track user accounts for file and object access, logon attempts, system shutdown etc. This enhances the security of the network. Before enabling auditing, the type of event to be audited should be specified in the Audit Policy in User Manager for Domains.
Reference: TechNet, Contents: quot;Chapter 11 – Authenticationquot;
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